HP QTP CERTIFICATION
Q: 1 When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file?
A. .INI
B..TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
Q: 2 What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A. Object, Operation, Value
B. Library, Built-in, Local Script
C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
Q: 3 In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet?
A. Local
B. Global
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Q: 4 What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A. A Do Loop
B. Recovery Scenario
C. IFHEN statement
D. Selectase statement
Q: 5 In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
Q: 6 Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Q: 7 Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Q: 8 After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, wherecan the results of an output parameter be found?
A. Local DataSheet
B. Global DataSheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Q: 9 If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must you do?
A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Q: 10 Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data Table during a test run?
A. Value
B. Import
C. GetCell
D. GetValue
Q: 11 What does the source property of a database checkpoint object represent?
A. The SQL query
B. The identification number of the database
C. The number of rows returned from the query
D. The connectionstring used to connect to the database
Q: 12 What is created, by default, with each new action?
A. Local Data Sheet, Global Data Sheet, Folder
B. Local Object Repository, Local Data Sheet, Folder
C. Global Data Sheet, Local Object Repository, Folder
D. Local Data Sheet, Global Data Sheet, Local Object Repository
13 What are the available environment variable type(s)?
A. Built-in
B. User-defined
C. User-function
D. Built-in, User-defined
E. Built-in, User-function
14 If the Global Data sheet contains no data and the Local Datasheet contains two rows of data, how many times will the test iterate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
15 What is the first thing that must be defined in a Recovery Scenario?
A. Trigger
B. Recovery Operation
C. Recovery Scenario Name
D. The Function used in the scenario
16 What are bitmap checkpoints sensitive to?
A. Image size and object type
B. Object type and image type
C. Screen resolution and object type
D. Screen resolution and image size
17 If the Local Data sheet contains two rows of data, how many times will the action iterate, by default?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
18 How do you close the database session after examining the results of an SQL query?
A. Call the ADO.Close function
B. Use the close method for the RecordSet object
C. Set the RecordSet and Connection objects equal to Nothing
D. Use the close method for the RecordSet and Connection objects
19 What are the available trigger event types?
A. Pop-up window, object state, VBScript event
B. Object State, VBScript event, Application crash
C. Pop-up window, object state, test run error, QTP crash
D. Pop-up window, object state, test run error, application crash
20 What is the keyword used to define how the counter variable in a or Next loop increments?
A. ++
B. Next
C. Skip
D. Step
21 What are the two most commonly used ADO objects?
A. Fields
B. Execute
C. Connection, RecordSet
D. Open, ConnectionString
22 How do you declare a constant?
A. Dim statement
B. Con statement
C. Const statement
D. Option Explicit statement
Q: 23 What method is used to retrieve the number of columns in the query results?
A. Fields.Count
B. Fields.Item(EOF)
C. Fields.Count(BOF)
D. Fields.Count.Value
24 To bypass the Object Repository you can:
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object to the Object Repository Manager
25 What does the ChildObjects method return?
A. A Collection object
B. A string true/false
C. A Boolean TRUE/FALSE
D. The number of objects matching the ChildObject description
26 What object is used to read information from a text file?
A. Read
B. ReadLine
C. TextStream
D. File System
E. Open Text File
27 If you are typing in Expert View and you type an object followed by a dot, what does QuickTest display?
A. Nothing
B. The arguments for that object
C. The methods and properties for that object
D. The child objects and methods for that object
28 By default, how does QuickTest pass arguments to the procedure?
A. ByVal
B. ByRef
C. ByArg
D. ByRes
29 What object is used to send information to test results at the completion of the test run?
A. Result
B. Reporter
C. ReportEvent
D. ResultReport
30 If a procedure is defined in a test script, that procedure is accessible to which tests/scripts?
A. Only to other procedures
B. It is not usable to any test scripts
C. The test script in which it is defined
D. Using the Step Generator, it is available to any test script
31 When does a Do loop statement evaluate for continuation?
A. At the end of the loop
B. At the start of the loop
C. At the start or the end of the loop
D. This loop uses a counter variable
32 How can you retrieve the number of items in the list for a WebList object?
A. GetList
B. GetItem
C. GetItemsCount
D. GetROProperty
33 What is the difference between a subroutine and a function?
A. A subroutine can call itself; a function cannot
B. A function returns a value; a subroutine cannot
C. A function can accept arguments; a subroutine cannot.
D. A subroutine can call other procedures; a function cannot.
34 What method is used to send a run-time Data sheet to an Excel file?
A. Send
B. Export
C. SendSheet
D. Exportsheet
35 What looping statements are available in QuickTest?
A. Whileend, Doloop, Ifhen
B. Switchfase, Ifhen, Fortext
C. Fortext, Whileend, Doloop
D. Fortext, Doloop, Switchase
36 What does the GetTOProperty method do?
A. Retrieves the value of a property from a test object
B. Retrieves the available properties from a test object
C. Retrieves the value of a property from a run-time object
D. Retrieves the available properties from a run-time object
37 To use low-level recording, what must you do first?
A. Start a new test
B. Be in the KeyWord view
C. Be recording in Normal mode
D. Click Low Level Recording under the Automation Menu
38 What is the correct set of add-ins installed automatically with QuickTest 9.2?
A. NET, Web, Java
B. Web, SAP, Visual Basic
C. Active X, Visual Basic, Web
D. Active X, TE, Web Services
39 What information can be seen in the information pane?
A. Syntax errors
B. The test name and author
C. The QTP license information
D. The machine id and operating system
40 What does a breakpoint do?
A. Stops test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
B. Stops test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
C. Pauses test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
D. Pauses test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
41 Which of the following is an example of a missing resource?
A. An object
B. Run Results
C. A Regular Action
D. An External Action
42 What are the available step commands in QuickTest?
A. Step, Step Into, Step Out
B. Step Into, Step Over, Step Out
C. Step Test, Step Action, Step Function
D. Run from Step, Debug from Step, Run from Step
43 When a test is run in update mode, what is updated?
A. The test results
B. The object descriptions
C. The action names in the test
D. The logical names in the test
44 What are the phases in the QuickTest workflow?
A. Plan, Record, Enhance, Run
B. Prepare, Record, Verify, Run
C. Plan, Create, Verify & Enhance
D. Prepare, Create, Verify & Enhance, Integrate
45 Why is low-level recording mode useful?
A. It records exact keyboard operations on an object.
B. It records exact coordinates of all mouse movements.
C. It uses the object repository to determine what methods can be used.
46 What are test object properties?
A. Those properties as defined in a description object.
B. Those properties as defined in Object Identification
C. Those properties displayed by an object at run-time
D. Those properties used in the Object Repository for object identification
47 What is the function of the Object Repository Manager?
A. Assign variable names to test objects
B. View/make/modify a Local Object Repository
C. View/make/modify a Shared Object Repository
D. Define new test objects using programmatic descriptions
48 where are virtual object collections stored?
A. In a Function Library
B. In the local Object Repository
C. In the Object Repository Manager
D. Data folder inside of the QTP installation directory
49 In the Object Identification dialog box, which properties can be viewed?
A. The base filter and optional properties
B. The mandatory and optional properties
C. The base filter and assistive properties
D. The mandatory and assistive properties
50 Where do you turn Smart Identification IN?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Test Settings dialog
C. The General Options dialog
D. The Object Identification dialog
51 How do you know if Smart Identification has been used in a test?
A. The Smart Identification icon appears in the test results
B. The test results will show a run error, causing a test failure
C. The properties used by the object repository will be changed
D. The Object Repository will show the Smart Identification icon
Answer: A
52 What options are available to filter objects in the Target Object Repository pane when merging object repositories?
A. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting object types
B. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
C. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting object types
D. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
53 What is the default ordinal identifier?
A. The location
B. The object id
C. The nativeclass
D. The index number
54 Which statement is used to associate a procedure with a test object class?
A. RegisterFunction
B. RegisterUserProc
C. RegisterUserFunc
D. RegisterProcedure
55 What must you do before a shared object repository can be edited?
A. Enable Editing
B. Add a new object
C. Open the object repository
D. Open an action that uses that shared object repository
56 Where do you configure an action to use a shared object repository?
A. Test Settings
B. Action Settings
C. Action Call Properties
D. Associate Repositories
57 You should use local object repositories when you:
A. Work with single-action tests
B. Work with multiple-action tests
C. Create multiple tests for a single application
D. Expect the test object properties to change frequently
58 Where can you merge two shared object repositories?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Object Repository Manager
C. The Associate Object Repositories Tool
D. You can only merge local object repositories
59 If you are typing in Expert View and you type an object followed by a dot, what does QuickTest display?
A. Nothing
B. The arguments for that object
C. The methods and properties for that object
D. The child objects and methods for that object
60 If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must you do?
A. Disable Virtual Object in Test Settings.
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options.
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list.
Q: 1 When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file?
A. .INI
B..TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
Q: 2 What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A. Object, Operation, Value
B. Library, Built-in, Local Script
C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
Q: 3 In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet?
A. Local
B. Global
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Q: 4 What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A. A Do Loop
B. Recovery Scenario
C. IFHEN statement
D. Selectase statement
Q: 5 In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
Q: 6 Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Q: 7 Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Q: 8 After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, wherecan the results of an output parameter be found?
A. Local DataSheet
B. Global DataSheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Q: 9 If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must you do?
A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Q: 10 Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data Table during a test run?
A. Value
B. Import
C. GetCell
D. GetValue
Q: 11 What does the source property of a database checkpoint object represent?
A. The SQL query
B. The identification number of the database
C. The number of rows returned from the query
D. The connectionstring used to connect to the database
Q: 12 What is created, by default, with each new action?
A. Local Data Sheet, Global Data Sheet, Folder
B. Local Object Repository, Local Data Sheet, Folder
C. Global Data Sheet, Local Object Repository, Folder
D. Local Data Sheet, Global Data Sheet, Local Object Repository
13 What are the available environment variable type(s)?
A. Built-in
B. User-defined
C. User-function
D. Built-in, User-defined
E. Built-in, User-function
14 If the Global Data sheet contains no data and the Local Datasheet contains two rows of data, how many times will the test iterate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
15 What is the first thing that must be defined in a Recovery Scenario?
A. Trigger
B. Recovery Operation
C. Recovery Scenario Name
D. The Function used in the scenario
16 What are bitmap checkpoints sensitive to?
A. Image size and object type
B. Object type and image type
C. Screen resolution and object type
D. Screen resolution and image size
17 If the Local Data sheet contains two rows of data, how many times will the action iterate, by default?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
18 How do you close the database session after examining the results of an SQL query?
A. Call the ADO.Close function
B. Use the close method for the RecordSet object
C. Set the RecordSet and Connection objects equal to Nothing
D. Use the close method for the RecordSet and Connection objects
19 What are the available trigger event types?
A. Pop-up window, object state, VBScript event
B. Object State, VBScript event, Application crash
C. Pop-up window, object state, test run error, QTP crash
D. Pop-up window, object state, test run error, application crash
20 What is the keyword used to define how the counter variable in a or Next loop increments?
A. ++
B. Next
C. Skip
D. Step
21 What are the two most commonly used ADO objects?
A. Fields
B. Execute
C. Connection, RecordSet
D. Open, ConnectionString
22 How do you declare a constant?
A. Dim statement
B. Con statement
C. Const statement
D. Option Explicit statement
Q: 23 What method is used to retrieve the number of columns in the query results?
A. Fields.Count
B. Fields.Item(EOF)
C. Fields.Count(BOF)
D. Fields.Count.Value
24 To bypass the Object Repository you can:
A. Turn the Object Repository off
B. Use a programmatic description
C. Delete all objects in all repositories
D. Add the object to the Object Repository Manager
25 What does the ChildObjects method return?
A. A Collection object
B. A string true/false
C. A Boolean TRUE/FALSE
D. The number of objects matching the ChildObject description
26 What object is used to read information from a text file?
A. Read
B. ReadLine
C. TextStream
D. File System
E. Open Text File
27 If you are typing in Expert View and you type an object followed by a dot, what does QuickTest display?
A. Nothing
B. The arguments for that object
C. The methods and properties for that object
D. The child objects and methods for that object
28 By default, how does QuickTest pass arguments to the procedure?
A. ByVal
B. ByRef
C. ByArg
D. ByRes
29 What object is used to send information to test results at the completion of the test run?
A. Result
B. Reporter
C. ReportEvent
D. ResultReport
30 If a procedure is defined in a test script, that procedure is accessible to which tests/scripts?
A. Only to other procedures
B. It is not usable to any test scripts
C. The test script in which it is defined
D. Using the Step Generator, it is available to any test script
31 When does a Do loop statement evaluate for continuation?
A. At the end of the loop
B. At the start of the loop
C. At the start or the end of the loop
D. This loop uses a counter variable
32 How can you retrieve the number of items in the list for a WebList object?
A. GetList
B. GetItem
C. GetItemsCount
D. GetROProperty
33 What is the difference between a subroutine and a function?
A. A subroutine can call itself; a function cannot
B. A function returns a value; a subroutine cannot
C. A function can accept arguments; a subroutine cannot.
D. A subroutine can call other procedures; a function cannot.
34 What method is used to send a run-time Data sheet to an Excel file?
A. Send
B. Export
C. SendSheet
D. Exportsheet
35 What looping statements are available in QuickTest?
A. Whileend, Doloop, Ifhen
B. Switchfase, Ifhen, Fortext
C. Fortext, Whileend, Doloop
D. Fortext, Doloop, Switchase
36 What does the GetTOProperty method do?
A. Retrieves the value of a property from a test object
B. Retrieves the available properties from a test object
C. Retrieves the value of a property from a run-time object
D. Retrieves the available properties from a run-time object
37 To use low-level recording, what must you do first?
A. Start a new test
B. Be in the KeyWord view
C. Be recording in Normal mode
D. Click Low Level Recording under the Automation Menu
38 What is the correct set of add-ins installed automatically with QuickTest 9.2?
A. NET, Web, Java
B. Web, SAP, Visual Basic
C. Active X, Visual Basic, Web
D. Active X, TE, Web Services
39 What information can be seen in the information pane?
A. Syntax errors
B. The test name and author
C. The QTP license information
D. The machine id and operating system
40 What does a breakpoint do?
A. Stops test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
B. Stops test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
C. Pauses test execution at the specified step, after executing that step
D. Pauses test execution at the specified step, before executing that step
41 Which of the following is an example of a missing resource?
A. An object
B. Run Results
C. A Regular Action
D. An External Action
42 What are the available step commands in QuickTest?
A. Step, Step Into, Step Out
B. Step Into, Step Over, Step Out
C. Step Test, Step Action, Step Function
D. Run from Step, Debug from Step, Run from Step
43 When a test is run in update mode, what is updated?
A. The test results
B. The object descriptions
C. The action names in the test
D. The logical names in the test
44 What are the phases in the QuickTest workflow?
A. Plan, Record, Enhance, Run
B. Prepare, Record, Verify, Run
C. Plan, Create, Verify & Enhance
D. Prepare, Create, Verify & Enhance, Integrate
45 Why is low-level recording mode useful?
A. It records exact keyboard operations on an object.
B. It records exact coordinates of all mouse movements.
C. It uses the object repository to determine what methods can be used.
46 What are test object properties?
A. Those properties as defined in a description object.
B. Those properties as defined in Object Identification
C. Those properties displayed by an object at run-time
D. Those properties used in the Object Repository for object identification
47 What is the function of the Object Repository Manager?
A. Assign variable names to test objects
B. View/make/modify a Local Object Repository
C. View/make/modify a Shared Object Repository
D. Define new test objects using programmatic descriptions
48 where are virtual object collections stored?
A. In a Function Library
B. In the local Object Repository
C. In the Object Repository Manager
D. Data folder inside of the QTP installation directory
49 In the Object Identification dialog box, which properties can be viewed?
A. The base filter and optional properties
B. The mandatory and optional properties
C. The base filter and assistive properties
D. The mandatory and assistive properties
50 Where do you turn Smart Identification IN?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Test Settings dialog
C. The General Options dialog
D. The Object Identification dialog
51 How do you know if Smart Identification has been used in a test?
A. The Smart Identification icon appears in the test results
B. The test results will show a run error, causing a test failure
C. The properties used by the object repository will be changed
D. The Object Repository will show the Smart Identification icon
Answer: A
52 What options are available to filter objects in the Target Object Repository pane when merging object repositories?
A. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting object types
B. Show all objects or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
C. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting object types
D. Show only objects with conflicting logical names or Show only objects with conflicting descriptions
53 What is the default ordinal identifier?
A. The location
B. The object id
C. The nativeclass
D. The index number
54 Which statement is used to associate a procedure with a test object class?
A. RegisterFunction
B. RegisterUserProc
C. RegisterUserFunc
D. RegisterProcedure
55 What must you do before a shared object repository can be edited?
A. Enable Editing
B. Add a new object
C. Open the object repository
D. Open an action that uses that shared object repository
56 Where do you configure an action to use a shared object repository?
A. Test Settings
B. Action Settings
C. Action Call Properties
D. Associate Repositories
57 You should use local object repositories when you:
A. Work with single-action tests
B. Work with multiple-action tests
C. Create multiple tests for a single application
D. Expect the test object properties to change frequently
58 Where can you merge two shared object repositories?
A. The Object Repository
B. The Object Repository Manager
C. The Associate Object Repositories Tool
D. You can only merge local object repositories
59 If you are typing in Expert View and you type an object followed by a dot, what does QuickTest display?
A. Nothing
B. The arguments for that object
C. The methods and properties for that object
D. The child objects and methods for that object
60 If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must you do?
A. Disable Virtual Object in Test Settings.
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options.
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list.
This post is indeed very useful & Descriptive .Thanks krishnaprasad
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